Letter: If court case shows that killing an unborn child is against the law, why is abortion not an everyday crime?

Is abortion a crime punishable in law?

In the court case, with the accused pleading guilty, the second charge read out was that of ‘intent to destroy the life of a child capable of being born alive by a wilful act, caused (sic) a child to die before it had an existence independent of its mother’.

How does this lie with abortion, which patently is ‘a wilful act causing a child to die before it has an existence independent of its mother’?

If this is seen as a crime in such a horrendous case as that being reported in your paper, why is it not a crime in everyday reality?

Are there double standards with the law? Is it legitimate for an expectant mother to ‘destroy the life of a child...mother’ simply because the law of the land has so decreed?

Is the infant aborted by e.g. a mother who can, legally, take pills up to the day of birth, not subjected to the same destruction?

Or one surgically aborted any less worthy under the law?

We all know the FFA exceptions in the law, but in reality most infants are aborted when the pregnancy is either the result of an unwanted sexual assault, social engineering or an inconvenience!

So why the difference in judgment? Does the legal profession have a view on this?

Gordon McNeill, Portadown